[Review] VFT/ATPL – Operational Procedures

The “no smoking” sign must be illuminated:

Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace in the applicable areas of the North Atlantic is defined between the following flight levels:

In NAT region, a revised estimate should be transmitted to the ATS when the estimated time for the next position has changed by:

An exit Is considered to be out of service when the following elements are inoperative: 1) the external door opening mechanism 2) the internal door opening mechanism 3) the door opening aid device 4) the open door locking system 5) the auxiliary means of evacuation 6) the emergency lighting The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport precession is the rotation in degrees of the Gyro North with respect to the:

Consider the fuel policy established by an operator for the purpose of flight planning and in-flight replanning to ensure that every flight carries sufficient fuel for the planned operation and reserves to cover deviations from the planned operation. The operator shall ensure that the pre-flight calculation of usable fuel required for a flight includes:

In case of an engine failure, unable to maintain altitude, how many miles do you have to fly offset of NAT track?

According to EASA AIR OPS, what minimum navigation equipment is required for operations under IFR, or under VFR over routes not navigated by reference to visual landmarks?

What is the scope of Annex Ill, Organisation Requirements for Air Operations (Part-ORO)?

According to EASA AIR OPS, a Category I operation is a precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height (DHJ not lower than _ and with a runway visual range (RVR) not less than _

How often should pilot proficiency checks be performed?

In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, which of the following are included in the Aerodrome Operating Minima for a non-precision approach? 1) the required RVR 2) the ceiling 3) the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) 4) the Decision Height (DH)

The ATIS reports destination weather as RVR 200 m, overcast at 100 ft throughout the approach. The approach procedure is ILS/NDB with a locator NOB at the OM. The minima for the approach are DH 200 ft, RVR 600 m. Which of the following statements is true?

On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the Greenwich meridian in the direaion of the True North Pole, the true orientation of the great circle linking point 62°N 010°E to point 66°N 050°W is 305°. The grid route at the starting point of this great circle is:

According to EASA AIR OPS, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category B aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:

In accordance with AIR OPS, a commander shall ensure that the amount of usable fuel remaining in flight is not less than the fuel required to proceed to an aerodrome where a safe landing can be made with:

Who is a key post holder within a company?

According to AIR OPS, an operator must select a take-off alternate:

In normal flight, what is the position of the emergency lighting switch?

In MNPS airspace, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the:

The term Decision Height (DH) is used for:

The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground stations in NAT region is:

Is it necessary to carry the entire Operations Manual on each flight?

According to AIR OPS regulations, a pilot may not continue a Category I approach below the DH unless at least one visual reference for the intended runway for landing is distinctly visible and identified by the pilot. What is the most complete combination of accepted visual references? 1) one element of the approach light system 2) the runway threshold 3) end of runway lights 4) visual approach slope indicator

According to EASA AIR OPS, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category D aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:

Fasten seat belt and no smoking signs. Please choose the correct statement:

Assuming 60 passengers on board a land aeroplane. The intended track will overfly water for a distance of 80 NM from the shore. According to EASA AIR OPS, the minimum number of passenger life jackets to be on board is:

What is a low visibility take-off?

What must be ensured with respect to navigation equipment?

In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, for a non-pressurized aircraft, all required cabin crew members shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:

On an NDB approach with an MOH of 360 ft and a required RVR of 1 500 m and a reported RVR of 2 500 m, when can you start an approach, i.e. which is most correct?

In accordance with AIR OPS, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a final reserve fuel for:

Prior conducting an ETOPS flight, the operator shall ensure that:

ICAO Annex 6 defines ‘flight time’ for aeroplanes as:

For a non-precision or circling approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) cannot be lower than:

What does HMU mean?

According to AIR OPS, what is the definition of an Air Operator Certificate?

What is the minimum RVR for conducting visual approach operations?

After an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight data recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:

What is the definition of Required Navigation Performance (RNP)?

According to EASA AIR OPS, what is the lowest possible MDH for a VOR/DME non-precision approach?

In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, 100% of the passengers in a non-pressurized aircraft must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than:

The abbreviation MNPS means:

The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:

What is the definition of a minimum time route?

The pre-flight inspection must be carried out by an organization appropriately approved/accepted in accordance with EC regulation Nr. 2042/2003:

According to EASA AIR OPS, what is the lowest possible MDH for an ILS without glideslope (LLZ only) non-precision approach?

An operator must select two destination alternates when either:

The file kept by an employer on its flight crews records: 1) the training 2) the test results 3) a log of flying hours 4) a summary of the training by reference period Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct answers?

According to AIR OPS on an IFR flight a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above:

Who has the final authority to carry out decisions concerning the specific composition of the cabin crew on a flight (Including the authonty to dismiss a cabin crew member from their duty)?

The aerodrome operating minima for a VORIDME approach are: MDH: 360ft Required RVR: 1 500 m Reported RVR: 1 800 m According to AIR OPS, the pilot may continue the final approach:

A so called VISUAL APPROACH:

According to EASA AIR OPS, a category IIIA precision approach (CAT IIIA) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:

During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crews operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:

During a VORIDME approach you can see the approach lights shortly before reaching the MDH. Can you continue the approach?

In accordance with AIR OPS, during a VOR procedure, if the reported RVR / visibility is less than the applicable minima, the approach shall not be continued beyond:

According to EASA AIR OPS, what is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT I approach available?

According to EASA AIR OPS, what is the lowest possible MDH for an NOB non-precision approach?

The coverage angle of the red navigation / position light is:

When are the flight crew members allowed to leave their stations?

The operator shall establish and maintain a flight data monitoring programme for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass of more than:

The operator shall only conduct CAT II, OTS CAT II or CAT III operations If:

Arriving at the point of entry into MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace (except Shanwick Oceanic) and not having yet received the oceanic clearance, the crew:

The Runway Visual Range (RVR) is reported when it falls below:

A category I precision approach (CAT I) has:

According to EASA AIR OPS, the minimum number of hand fire-extinguishers to be located in the passenger compartment of an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 31 is:

What is the reason for selecting a suitable take-off alternate aerodrome?

According to EASA AIR OPS, a Category IIIB operations, is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with, a decision height lower than 50ft, or no decision height and a runway visual range lower than 200m but no less than:

According to EASA AIR OPS and assuming the following circumstances: – a Category A aeroplane – an aerodrome equipped with runway edge lighting and centre line lighting and multiple RVR information – an acceptable alternate aerodrome is available What is the minimum RVR value for take-off?

What manuals are to be carried on board the aircraft?

A Category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:

For a category D aeroplane, the indicated airspeed at threshold (VAT) is:

Who is to ensure safe handling of flights?

A minimum time track is a:

An operator shall not appoint a person to the post of senior cabin crew member unless that person has at least _ experience as an operating cabin crew member and has completed an appropriate courses.

In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, for a Category IIIA approach, the RVR shall not be less than:

Regarding all weather operations, if VAT is from 121 kts to 140 kts, the aeroplane is in:

For a category I precision approach, the decision height (DH) cannot be lower than:

During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDHJ is referred to the runway threshold elevation and not to the aerodrome elevation if the runway threshold is at more than:

Regarding all weather operations, if VAT is from 91 kts to 120 kts, the aeroplane is in:

A visual approach is:

ICAO Annex 6 defines ‘flight t ime’ for aeroplanes as:

MDA is:

The abbreviation AOC stands for:

An Air Operator Certificate is applicable to:

An accurate time piece available at the pilot’s station is a required equipment for VFR and IFR operations. Does it have to be approved by EASA?

A category Ill C precision approach (CAT Ill C) is an approach with:

Who is responsible for ensuring operat ions are conducted on appropriate routes and in appropriate airspace?

What aircraft equipment is required for a flight performed in Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC)?

Minimum time route is a route calculated for:

A manual inflation handle:

According to EASA AIR OPS, a category C aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:

In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, for a Category IIIB approach, the RVR shall not be less than:

Information about operator’s flight time limitations for crew members can be found in the:

What is VAT?

During an ILS procedure, if the reported RVR / visibility is less than the applicable minima, the approach shall not be continued beyond:

A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with:

According to EASA AIR OPS, the minimum visibility for a Category C aeroplane on a circling approach is:

An aeroplane Is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum visibility of 750 metres. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started?

According to EASA AIR OPS, the MDH and minimum meteorologica l visibility for a category C aircraft circling are respectively:

A pilot in command: 1) Must comply with ATC instructions immediately. 2) Is only responsible when airborne. 3) May deviate in an emergency. 4) May deviate from complying with rules of the air in order to comply with an ATC instruction. 5) May request a new clearance if unsatisfied. The correct combination is:

Who must finally determine that the load and its distribution is such that the mass and balance limits of the aircraft are not exceeded and confirm their acceptance by countersigning the mass and balance documentation?

Who has the final say if someone is allowed in the cockpit?

MNPS is the abbreviation for:

The minimum RVR for a Category III B operation with roll out guidance or fail passive control systems is:

An aeroplane which has a maximum certificated Take-off Mass over 5 700 kg, shall be equipped with a cockpit voice recorder capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:

With reference to ICAO Annex 6, a departure aerodrome can also be used as a:

According to AIR OPS, which of the following is the correct definition of “wet lease”?

The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be operable on board any aircraft of more than 5 700 kg or more than 9 passengers during at least (EASA AIR OPS)

A precision approach runway CAT II is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids intended for operations down to:

Regarding all weather operations, if VAT is from 141 kts to 165 kts, the aeroplane is in:

According to EASA AIR OPS, what is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT II approach available?

When approaching a cleared Flight level in RVSM airspace, the vertical speed should not exceed:

The ICAO procedure designed to collect and disseminate information on bird strikes to aircraft is called:

The operator shall include in the operations manual a Minimum Equipment List which shall be approved by the Authority of:

On what type of fire would a C0₂ extinguisher be most effective?

The language(s) used for dangerous goods documentations is/are:

Who is responsible for ensuring that the regulatory procedures for the transportation of dangerous goods in terms of packaging and marking are complied with?

The accumulation of frost, snow or ice on an aeroplane in flight induces, amongst other serious consequences, an increase in the:

Which initial cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind?

Following an explosive decompression at FL370, your first action will be:

The highest risk of bird strikes occurs:

The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:

Wake turbulence is created by:

When landing behind a large aircraft the effect of wake turbulence are likely to be worst in conditions of:

According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to

Windshear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in space, including updraughts and downdraughts. To counter the effects ofwindshear the amount of control action that is required is:

You will use a C0₂ fire extinguisher for: 1) a paper fire 2) a plastic fire 3) a hydrocarbon fire 4) an electrical fire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Due to a cabin pressurization defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. Assuming you don’t want the cabin altitude being greater than 10 000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:

Under what conditions is a radar separation of 5 NM required for wake turbulence spacing?

The MMEL (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:

To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuvre:

The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by:

In what part of the operations manual can you find type specific information regarding contaminated runways?

In which chapter (part) of the Operations Manual would you find information on performance data?

Wake turbulence should be taken into account when:

A class B fire is a fire of:

What type of fire extinguishing agent should be used on a magnesium fire?

The Master Minimum Equipment list (MMEL) is established by:

The MEL (Minimum Equipment List) can be changed by:

What transponder code should be used by the commander of an aircraft to provide recognition that the aircraft is being subjected to unlawful interference (hijack)?

In a microburst downdraughts in the order of 3000 to 4000 ft/min can produce vector changes in horizontal wind of:

During the certification flight tests regarding fuel jettisoning it must be shown that: 1) Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard. 2) The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane. 3) Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane. 4) The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeroplane.

If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure:

At a given configuration, the wake turbulence of an aeroplane is greater when the aeroplane is:

Refer to commercial aircraft operations. In what part of the operations manual would you find type specific information?

Wake turbulence category HEAVY refers to aircraft which have a maximum certificated take-off mass of:

The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is: